Line Integrals as Integrals of Vectors
The vector form $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ - work, circulation, and the differential-form bookkeeping - Kaplan §5.4
Prereq: §5.1 Intro • §5.2 Line Integrals in the Plane • §5.3 Arc-Length Form
A particle drifts along a curve through a force field. The force varies, the path bends. Yet a single integral captures the total work the field does on the particle. What is it - and how does it relate to the $\int P\,dx + Q\,dy$ we've already met?
From Work, By Way of Riemann
We've already met line integrals as $\int_C P\,dx + Q\,dy$ in §5.2 and as $\int_C f\,ds$ in §5.3. Now we want a third reading - one that shows the integrand is a vector dot product, and explains why the previous two forms are really the same animal in different clothes.
Start with the physical setup. A particle moves along a curve $C$ in the plane or in space, parametrized by $\mathbf{r}(t) = (x(t), y(t), z(t))$ for $t \in [a,b]$. A vector field $\mathbf{u}(\mathbf{r})$ acts on the particle. We want the total work done by $\mathbf{u}$.
For a constant force on a straight segment, work is $\mathbf{u} \cdot \Delta\mathbf{r}$. The trouble is that $\mathbf{u}$ varies along $C$, and $C$ itself isn't straight. So we zoom in. Cut $C$ into $n$ small pieces. On each piece - if it's small enough - the path is nearly straight (replace it by the displacement vector $\Delta\mathbf{r}_k$) and $\mathbf{u}$ is nearly constant (evaluate it at one point $\mathbf{r}_k$ on the piece). The work on that piece is approximately
Sum, then shrink:
That's the vector form. It's nothing new conceptually - it's just the work-from-Riemann-sums story we already used in §5.1, written compactly with a dot product so the structure is visible.
Computing the Integral - Parametric Reduction
The definition is geometric, but to get a number we parametrize. With $\mathbf{r}(t) = (x(t), y(t), z(t))$, the differential displacement is
So the line integral collapses to an ordinary one-variable integral:
This is the workhorse formula. Plug in the parametrization, dot the field with the velocity vector, integrate over the parameter.
Worked example. Take $\mathbf{u}(x,y) = (-y, x)$ - the rotation field - and let $C$ be the unit circle traced counterclockwise: $\mathbf{r}(t) = (\cos t, \sin t)$, $t \in [0, 2\pi]$.
Then $\mathbf{u}(\mathbf{r}(t)) = (-\sin t, \cos t)$ and $\mathbf{r}'(t) = (-\sin t, \cos t)$. The dot product is $\sin^2 t + \cos^2 t = 1$, and
$\displaystyle \oint_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r} \;=\; \int_0^{2\pi} 1\,dt \;=\; 2\pi.$
The field is everywhere tangent to the circle and aiding the motion - so the work integrates to a positive number. Reverse direction (use $-t$ as parameter) and we'd get $-2\pi$. Run halfway and stop and we'd get $\pi$. Direction and length both matter.
Component Form - The Same Integral, Three Notations
Write $\mathbf{u} = L\,\mathbf{i} + M\,\mathbf{j} + N\,\mathbf{k}$ and $d\mathbf{r} = dx\,\mathbf{i} + dy\,\mathbf{j} + dz\,\mathbf{k}$. The dot product expands:
That's the differential-form notation Kaplan uses throughout §5.2 and §5.5 (Green's). It's not a new integral - it's the same vector line integral with the dot product written out. So when we see $\int_C P\,dx + Q\,dy$ in a 2-D problem, we can mentally replace it with $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ where $\mathbf{u} = (P, Q)$, or vice versa.
And the §5.3 connection. Let $\mathbf{T}$ be the unit tangent vector along $C$. Then $d\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{T}\,ds$, and
Same number, three readings: $\int \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ (vector), $\int L\,dx + M\,dy + N\,dz$ (differential forms), $\int u_T\,ds$ (scalar tangential component along arc length). Pick whichever is computational easiest - usually the parametric reduction in card 2.
Properties That Pay Off
Two structural facts about $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ keep showing up. Worth memorizing.
(The tangent vector flips, so the dot product flips sign, so the integral does too. Compare to the scalar arc-length form $\int f\,ds$, which is direction-blind.)
Splitting and rejoining a path doesn't change the work. This is the basis of evaluating integrals over piecewise paths (a triangle, a square, a polygon) one segment at a time.
One more, conceptually different. Suppose $\mathbf{u} = \nabla f$ for some scalar function $f$ - i.e. the field is conservative. Then
The path drops out entirely - only endpoints matter. This is the line-integral analogue of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, and Kaplan develops it fully in §5.6 (Independence of Path). The lesson here: before computing, check if $\mathbf{u}$ is a gradient. If yes, the work is trivial.
Final Review - When You See It, What to Reach For
§5.4 problems usually look like one of these. The right move is almost always the parametric reduction; the question is whether to dodge it via a property first.
Parametrize $C$ as $\mathbf{r}(t)$, plug in:
$$\int_a^b \mathbf{u}(\mathbf{r}(t))\cdot \mathbf{r}'(t)\,dt.$$Default move - works every time. Don't outsmart it unless one of the special cases below applies.
Test: in a simply connected domain, $\mathbf{u} = \nabla f$ iff $\text{curl}\,\mathbf{u} = 0$ (in 2-D: $\partial M/\partial x = \partial L/\partial y$). If yes, find $f$ and use $f(B) - f(A)$. Path drops out.
If $\mathbf{u}$ is conservative on a simply connected region containing $C$: answer is $0$. Otherwise reach for Green's theorem (§5.5):
$$\oint_C L\,dx + M\,dy = \iint_R \left(\frac{\partial M}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial L}{\partial y}\right) dx\,dy.$$Compute curl. If zero, yes. If nonzero, no - and the difference equals the curl integrated over any region between them (Green's again).
- $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ - vector form (this section)
- $\int_C L\,dx + M\,dy + N\,dz$ - differential-form notation (Kaplan §5.2 / §5.5)
- $\int_C u_T\,ds$ or $\int_C (\mathbf{u}\cdot\mathbf{T})\,ds$ - tangential component along arc length (Kaplan §5.3)
- All three are equal - choose computationally.
Traps to Watch For
The signed nature of $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ is the source of most mistakes. Reading the next six items is cheap; rediscovering them on the exam isn't.
- Forgetting that direction matters. Reversing $C$ flips the sign. If we parametrize with $t$ going the wrong way (e.g. circle clockwise when the problem says counterclockwise), our answer is the negative of the right one. Always check the orientation against the problem's statement.
- Mixing up $d\mathbf{r}$ and $ds$. $d\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{r}'(t)\,dt$ is a vector and integrates with a dot product. $ds = |\mathbf{r}'(t)|\,dt$ is a scalar (the arc length element) and integrates against a scalar function $f$. Using $ds$ where $d\mathbf{r}$ is needed kills all directional information.
- Pulling a constant vector $\mathbf{u}$ outside. Yes, we can: $\int_C \mathbf{c}\cdot d\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{c}\cdot \int_C d\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{c}\cdot (\mathbf{r}(b) - \mathbf{r}(a))$. So a constant force on any path depends only on endpoints. This is the simplest case of "conservative" - and a common quick-check.
- Computing the dot product wrong. Component-wise: $(L, M, N)\cdot(dx, dy, dz) = L\,dx + M\,dy + N\,dz$. Each pairing matches indices. Writing $L\,dy$ or $M\,dx$ is a standard slip on this topic.
- Skipping the gradient check. Before grinding through a parametric integral, test whether curl is zero. If yes, $f(B) - f(A)$ might be a 30-second computation instead of a five-minute one. We'll always pay for not checking.
- Confusing line integrals with definite integrals. $\int_a^b f(t)\,dt$ runs over a real interval; $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ runs over a curve in space. The formula $\int_a^b \mathbf{u}(\mathbf{r}(t))\cdot \mathbf{r}'(t)\,dt$ converts one to the other - the parameter interval $[a,b]$ is not the curve, just a label for points on the curve.
Practice Problems - §5.4
From Kaplan, problems after §5.5 (cover §5.4-§5.5)
Compute $\int_C 2xy\,dx + (x^2 - y)\,dy$ where $C$ is the parabola $y = x^2$ traced from $(0,0)$ to $(1,1)$.
Let $x = t$, $y = t^2$, $t \in [0,1]$. Then $dx = dt$, $dy = 2t\,dt$.
$2xy\,dx = 2t \cdot t^2 \cdot dt = 2t^3\,dt$.
$(x^2 - y)\,dy = (t^2 - t^2)(2t\,dt) = 0$.
Quick gradient check: $\partial M/\partial x = 2x$, $\partial L/\partial y = 2x$. Equal - so this field is conservative. Finding $f$ such that $\nabla f = (2xy, x^2 - y)$ gives $f = x^2 y - y^2/2$, and $f(1,1) - f(0,0) = 1 - 1/2 = 1/2$. Same answer, different route.
Compute $\int_C 2xy\,dx + (x^2 - y)\,dy$ where $C$ is the L-shaped path: horizontal from $(0,0)$ to $(1,0)$, then vertical from $(1,0)$ to $(1,1)$.
By linearity over the path, $\int_C = \int_{C_1} + \int_{C_2}$ where $C_1$ is horizontal and $C_2$ is vertical.
On $C_1$: $y = 0$, $dy = 0$, $x = t$ from $0$ to $1$. So $2xy\,dx = 0$ and $(x^2-y)\,dy = 0$. Both terms vanish: $\int_{C_1} = 0$.
On $C_2$: $x = 1$, $dx = 0$, $y = t$ from $0$ to $1$. So $2xy\,dx = 0$ and $(x^2-y)\,dy = (1 - t)\,dt$.
$$\int_{C_2} (1 - t)\,dt = \left[t - \tfrac{t^2}{2}\right]_0^1 = \tfrac{1}{2}.$$Total: $0 + 1/2 = 1/2$. Same as 1(a) - confirming the field is conservative.
Compute $\oint_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ where $\mathbf{u} = -y\,\mathbf{i} + x\,\mathbf{j}$ and $C$ is the unit square from $(0,0)\to(1,0)\to(1,1)\to(0,1)\to(0,0)$.
$L = -y$, $M = x$. $\partial M/\partial x = 1$, $\partial L/\partial y = -1$. Not equal - so $\mathbf{u}$ is not a gradient. The integral around a closed curve will likely be nonzero.
$\oint_C L\,dx + M\,dy = \iint_R \left(\dfrac{\partial M}{\partial x} - \dfrac{\partial L}{\partial y}\right) dA = \iint_R (1 - (-1))\,dA = 2 \cdot \text{Area}(R) = 2 \cdot 1 = 2.$
Direct evaluation along the four edges would give the same answer (two edges contribute, two are zero by symmetry of the field). Green's is faster once we recognize the closed-curve setup.
Compute $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ where $\mathbf{u} = y\,\mathbf{i} + z\,\mathbf{j} + x\,\mathbf{k}$ and $C$ is the helix $\mathbf{r}(t) = (\cos t, \sin t, t)$ for $t \in [0, 2\pi]$.
$\mathbf{r}'(t) = (-\sin t, \cos t, 1)$.
$\mathbf{u}(\mathbf{r}(t)) = (y, z, x) = (\sin t, t, \cos t)$.
$\mathbf{u}\cdot\mathbf{r}' = (\sin t)(-\sin t) + (t)(\cos t) + (\cos t)(1) = -\sin^2 t + t\cos t + \cos t.$
Term by term: $\int_0^{2\pi} -\sin^2 t\,dt = -\pi$. $\int_0^{2\pi} t\cos t\,dt = 0$ (integrate by parts: $[t\sin t]_0^{2\pi} - \int \sin t\,dt = 0 - 0 = 0$). $\int_0^{2\pi} \cos t\,dt = 0$.
Total: $-\pi$.