Two paths from $A=(-1,-0.6)$ to $B=(1,0.6)$ over the same vector field. We compute the work $\int_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ along each path and put the numbers side by side. Try both fields:

Red path: arc above...
Blue path: arc below...
...

When does the path from $A$ to $B$ not matter? The first field gives identical integrals on every path - the second one doesn't. The whole story of §5.6 is figuring out which fields fall into which camp.

What "path independent" actually means

We have a vector field $\mathbf{u} = P(x,y)\,\mathbf{i} + Q(x,y)\,\mathbf{j}$ defined on some domain $D$ in the plane. Pick two points $A$ and $B$ in $D$. The line integral $\int_A^B \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}$ depends, in principle, on three things: the field, the endpoints, and the curve $C$ joining them.

We say the integral is independent of path in $D$ if for every pair of endpoints $A, B$ in $D$, every piecewise smooth curve from $A$ to $B$ gives the same value. The integral cares only about $A$ and $B$, not the route.

Here's the everyday picture. You hike from your tent to the summit. The total work done against gravity depends only on the elevation gain - not the trail you picked. That's path independence for gravity. Friction, on the other hand, eats more energy on a long zig-zag than on a direct climb - friction is not path-independent, and we can feel the difference in our knees.

Definition (Kaplan §5.6). $\displaystyle\int_C P\,dx + Q\,dy$ is independent of path in $D$ if, for every two points $A, B \in D$, the value is the same for all piecewise smooth paths $C$ from $A$ to $B$.

So when does this happen? Kaplan answers with four theorems, each adding a different angle. Let's take them one at a time. Each unlocks the next.

Theorem I - path independent means there's a potential

The first theorem is the deepest one, and it goes both directions.

Theorem I. Let $D$ be an open connected domain. Then $\displaystyle\int P\,dx + Q\,dy$ is independent of path in $D$ if and only if there exists a scalar function $f(x,y)$ defined on $D$ with $$\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = P, \qquad \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = Q,$$ i.e. $\mathbf{u} = \nabla f$. Equivalently, $P\,dx + Q\,dy$ is the exact differential $df$.

Let's see why both directions work. The reverse direction first - it's quick.

Reverse ($\mathbf{u} = \nabla f \Rightarrow$ path independent): if $\mathbf{u} = \nabla f$, then along any smooth curve $\mathbf{r}(t)$,

$$\mathbf{u}\cdot \frac{d\mathbf{r}}{dt} = \nabla f \cdot \frac{d\mathbf{r}}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt}\, f\bigl(\mathbf{r}(t)\bigr)$$

by the chain rule. So

$$\int_A^B \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r} = \int_a^b \frac{d}{dt} f(\mathbf{r}(t))\,dt = f(B) - f(A).$$

The right-hand side mentions only the endpoints. Done.

Forward (path independent $\Rightarrow$ a potential exists): here's the construction Kaplan uses, and it's the genius step. Pick a basepoint $(x_0, y_0)$ in $D$ and define

$$f(x, y) \;=\; \int_{(x_0,\,y_0)}^{(x,\,y)} P\,dx + Q\,dy.$$

This formula is well-defined precisely because the integral is path-independent - the right-hand side doesn't care which path we use, only the endpoints. So $f$ is an honest function of $(x,y)$.

Now we have to show $\partial f/\partial x = P$ and $\partial f/\partial y = Q$. Trick: to compute $\partial f/\partial x$ at a fixed point, pick a path that ends with a horizontal segment. Walk from $(x_0,y_0)$ to some intermediate point $(x_1, y)$, then move horizontally along $y = $ const from $(x_1, y)$ to $(x, y)$. On the horizontal piece $dy = 0$, so

$$f(x, y) = (\text{stuff not depending on } x) + \int_{x_1}^{x} P(t, y)\,dt.$$

The fundamental theorem of calculus then gives $\partial f/\partial x = P(x, y)$. The same trick with a vertical segment gives $\partial f/\partial y = Q(x, y)$. So $\nabla f = \mathbf{u}$, and we have a potential.

Theorem I is the structural theorem - it says path independence is the same as having a potential. The next three theorems are about how to recognize path independence in practice.

Why "open connected"? Open so the partial derivatives make sense at every point. Connected so we can actually get from $(x_0,y_0)$ to $(x,y)$ along a path inside $D$ - otherwise the integral defining $f$ might not exist. Note that open connected here is weaker than simply connected; we'll see why that matters at Theorem IV.

Theorem II - closed loops give zero

Theorem I gave us a structural picture. Theorem II gives an equivalent operational test: instead of checking every pair of paths from $A$ to $B$, we just check closed loops.

Theorem II. $\displaystyle\int P\,dx + Q\,dy$ is independent of path in $D$ if and only if $$\oint_C P\,dx + Q\,dy = 0$$ for every piecewise smooth simple closed curve $C$ lying in $D$.

The proof is a one-liner picture. Take any closed loop $C$ in $D$. Pick two points $A, B$ on it. The loop splits into two arcs from $A$ to $B$ - call them $C_1$ and $C_2'$ (the second one traversed forward). Going around the loop is the same as going $A\to B$ along $C_1$, then $B \to A$ along the reverse of $C_2'$:

$$\oint_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r} \;=\; \int_{C_1} \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r} \;-\; \int_{C_2'} \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r}.$$

If the integral is path-independent, those two integrals are equal, and the difference is zero. Conversely, if every closed-loop integral is zero, then for any two paths $C_1, C_2$ from $A$ to $B$, gluing $C_1$ to the reverse of $C_2$ gives a closed loop with integral zero - so the two paths give the same value.

This is the version that matches our hook. In the gradient field, both red and blue paths gave the same number; equivalently, the closed loop "red forward, then blue backward" integrates to zero. In the vortex field, the two integrals differed - so the loop did not integrate to zero.

Theorem III - a necessary condition: $P_y = Q_x$

So far we have two equivalent ways to spot path independence: find a potential, or check that all loops give zero. Both are global - we'd need to find $f$, or somehow integrate around every loop. We want a local test we can run pointwise. Theorem III gives one.

Theorem III. If $P, Q \in C^1$ on $D$ and $\displaystyle\int P\,dx + Q\,dy$ is independent of path in $D$, then $$\frac{\partial P}{\partial y} \;=\; \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} \qquad \text{everywhere in } D.$$

The proof is one line if we're already holding Theorem I. Path independence gives us $f$ with $P = f_x$ and $Q = f_y$. Then

$$\frac{\partial P}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y\,\partial x}, \qquad \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x\,\partial y}.$$

For a $C^2$ function, mixed partials are equal (Clairaut's theorem). So $P_y = Q_x$.

In the language of curl: writing the 2D scalar curl as $Q_x - P_y$, Theorem III says path-independent fields are curl-free. That's the local test we wanted - just compute one derivative and compare.

How to use it. Theorem III is a one-way street: it's a necessary condition. If you ever find a point where $P_y \neq Q_x$, the field is not path-independent - rule it out and move on. But the converse - "if $P_y = Q_x$ everywhere, then path-independent" - is not always true. That gap is the whole point of Theorem IV.

Theorem IV - the converse, with one more hypothesis

We want to turn Theorem III around: from $P_y = Q_x$ conclude path independence. Theorem IV does this, but it has to assume something extra about $D$.

Theorem IV. Let $P, Q$ have continuous partial derivatives on $D$ and let $D$ be simply connected. If $$\frac{\partial P}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} \qquad \text{everywhere in } D,$$ then $\displaystyle\int P\,dx + Q\,dy$ is independent of path in $D$.

Recall that simply connected means: $D$ is open, connected, and has no holes - more precisely, every simple closed curve in $D$ encloses a region that also lies entirely in $D$. The disk, the half-plane, all of $\mathbb{R}^2$, a square, a sector - all simply connected. The annulus, or the plane with the origin removed, are not.

Proof sketch. Take any simple closed curve $C$ in $D$. Because $D$ is simply connected, the region $R$ enclosed by $C$ also lies in $D$. So $P, Q$ and their partials are continuous on $R$, and Green's theorem applies:

$$\oint_C P\,dx + Q\,dy \;=\; \iint_R \left( \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x} - \frac{\partial P}{\partial y} \right) dA \;=\; \iint_R 0\,dA \;=\; 0.$$

Every simple closed loop integrates to zero. By Theorem II, the integral is path-independent.

The simply-connected hypothesis pulls all the weight: it's exactly what guarantees $R \subseteq D$, which is exactly what makes Green's theorem applicable. Drop it, and the proof breaks - and so, as we'll now see, does the conclusion.

Counterexample - the vortex on the punctured plane

Consider the field

$$\mathbf{u} = \left\langle \frac{-y}{x^2+y^2},\; \frac{x}{x^2+y^2} \right\rangle$$

defined on $D = \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus \{(0,0)\}$. A direct computation gives

$$\frac{\partial P}{\partial y} = \frac{y^2 - x^2}{(x^2+y^2)^2} = \frac{\partial Q}{\partial x}$$

everywhere on $D$. So Theorem III's condition is satisfied. Yet on the unit circle $C: x = \cos t, y = \sin t$, $0 \le t \le 2\pi$, we get

$$\oint_C \frac{-y\,dx + x\,dy}{x^2 + y^2} \;=\; \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin^2 t + \cos^2 t}{1}\,dt \;=\; \int_0^{2\pi} 1\,dt \;=\; 2\pi \;\neq\; 0.$$

So the integral is not path-independent on $D$. What broke? $D$ has a hole at the origin - it's not simply connected. The disk bounded by $C$ contains the origin, where $\mathbf{u}$ blows up; Green's theorem is not applicable. Theorem IV's hypothesis fails, and so does its conclusion.

The deformation principle and how to handle multiply connected domains in general are the subject of §5.7 (separate page).

The four theorems on one page

Here's all four, lined up. Read across each row: hypothesis, conclusion, what role it plays.

TheoremHypothesis on $D$SaysRole
I open connected path-indep $\iff \mathbf{u} = \nabla f$ for some $f$ Structural - exact differential
II open connected path-indep $\iff \oint_C \mathbf{u}\cdot d\mathbf{r} = 0$ for every simple closed $C$ Operational - test by loops
III open connected, $P,Q\in C^1$ path-indep $\Rightarrow P_y = Q_x$ Necessary - local test (one direction)
IV simply connected, $P,Q\in C^1$ $P_y = Q_x \Rightarrow$ path-indep Sufficient - turns III around

And here's the practical workflow for "is this field conservative?":

  1. Quick local test: compute the 2D scalar curl $Q_x - P_y$. If it's nonzero anywhere in $D$, the field is not path-independent. Stop.
  2. If $Q_x = P_y$ everywhere on $D$, look at the shape of $D$. Simply connected? Theorem IV gives you path independence for free. Find $f$ by the standard recipe (path along axes, or guess-and-check).
  3. If $D$ has holes (e.g. the punctured plane), the field is conservative locally on every simply-connected sub-region, but globally you need to test one closed loop around each hole. Nonzero on any of them ⇒ not path-independent on $D$.
  4. If you have a potential $f$, evaluate any line integral as $f(B) - f(A)$. No parametrization, no curve - just two function values.

The vortex from card 5 is a beautiful one-line example of step 3: curl-free yet $\oint = 2\pi$ around the origin. The recipe in step 2 - how to actually find $f$ - lives on its own page, Finding Potentials (forthcoming).

Practice Problems - §5.6

From Kaplan, problems following §5.6 / §5.7 (selected to test §5.6 material).

1(a) Find $F$ by inspection from $dF = 2xy\,dx + x^2\,dy$, then evaluate $\int_{(-1,2)}^{(3,1)} 2xy\,dx + x^2\,dy$ on $y = x^2$.
Determine by inspection a function $F(x,y)$ whose differential is $2xy\,dx + x^2\,dy$, then use Theorem I to evaluate $$\int_{(-1,\,2)}^{(3,\,1)} 2xy\,dx + x^2\,dy$$ along the curve $y = x^2$.
Step 1 - Spot the potential. We want $F$ with $F_x = 2xy$ and $F_y = x^2$. Both partials of $F = x^2 y$ work: $$F(x,y) = x^2 y \;\Longrightarrow\; F_x = 2xy,\; F_y = x^2.\;\checkmark$$ So $dF = 2xy\,dx + x^2\,dy$ exactly.
Step 2 - Verify path independence. With $P = 2xy$, $Q = x^2$: $P_y = 2x = Q_x$. The field is $C^1$ on all of $\mathbb{R}^2$ (simply connected), so Theorem IV applies - the integral is path-independent.
Step 3 - Apply Theorem I (the fundamental theorem). $$\int_{(-1,2)}^{(3,1)} 2xy\,dx + x^2\,dy = F(3,1) - F(-1,2) = 9 - 2 = 7.$$ The curve $y = x^2$ is irrelevant - we never used it.
2(b) Test for path independence and evaluate $\int_{(0,2)}^{(1,3)} \tfrac{3x^2}{y^2}\,dx - \tfrac{x^3}{y^3} \cdot 2\,dy$ on $y = 2 + x^2$.
Test for independence of path and evaluate $$\int_{(0,\,2)}^{(1,\,3)} \frac{3x^2}{y^2}\,dx - \frac{2x^3}{y^3}\,dy$$ on the parabola $y = 2 + x^2$.
Step 1 - Apply Theorem III's test. $P = 3x^2/y^2$, $Q = -2x^3/y^3$.
$P_y = -6x^2/y^3$, $\;Q_x = -6x^2/y^3$. Equal. Good sign.
Step 2 - Confirm domain is simply connected. $P, Q$ blow up where $y = 0$. Restrict to $D = \{(x,y) : y > 0\}$ (the upper half-plane). That's simply connected, and our path from $(0,2)$ to $(1,3)$ lies entirely in $D$. By Theorem IV the integral is path-independent on $D$.
Step 3 - Find the potential. From $F_x = 3x^2/y^2$, integrate in $x$: $F = x^3/y^2 + g(y)$. Then $F_y = -2x^3/y^3 + g'(y)$ must equal $-2x^3/y^3$, so $g'(y) = 0$ and we may take $$F(x,y) = \frac{x^3}{y^2}.$$
Step 4 - Evaluate. $$F(1,3) - F(0,2) = \frac{1}{9} - 0 = \frac{1}{9}.$$ Again, the parabola never enters the calculation.
6(a) Show $2xy\,dx + (x^2 - y^2)\,dy$ is path-independent on $\mathbb{R}^2$ and evaluate from $(0,0)$ to $(1,1)$.
Show that $\displaystyle\int 2xy\,dx + (x^2 - y^2)\,dy$ is independent of path in the $xy$-plane and evaluate $$\int_{(0,0)}^{(1,1)} 2xy\,dx + (x^2 - y^2)\,dy.$$
Step 1 - Verify hypotheses of Theorem IV. $P = 2xy$, $Q = x^2 - y^2$. Both are polynomials, $C^\infty$ on all of $\mathbb{R}^2$.
$P_y = 2x = Q_x$. The plane is simply connected. Theorem IV gives path independence.
Step 2 - Find $F$. From $F_x = 2xy$: $F = x^2 y + g(y)$. Then $F_y = x^2 + g'(y) = x^2 - y^2$, so $g'(y) = -y^2$ and $g(y) = -y^3/3$. $$F(x,y) = x^2 y - \tfrac{1}{3} y^3.$$ Quick check: $F_x = 2xy\,\checkmark$, $F_y = x^2 - y^2\,\checkmark$.
Step 3 - Evaluate by Theorem I. $$F(1,1) - F(0,0) = (1 - \tfrac{1}{3}) - 0 = \tfrac{2}{3}.$$
4 Determine all values of $\int_{(1,0)}^{(2,2)} \frac{-y\,dx + x\,dy}{x^2 + y^2}$ on a path not passing through the origin.
Determine all possible values of $$\int_{(1,\,0)}^{(2,\,2)} \frac{-y\,dx + x\,dy}{x^2 + y^2}$$ along a path not passing through the origin.
Step 1 - Spot the trap. $P = -y/(x^2+y^2)$, $Q = x/(x^2+y^2)$ - this is the vortex from card 5. We computed $P_y = Q_x$ everywhere off the origin.
But $D = \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus \{0\}$ is not simply connected - it has a hole. Theorem IV does not apply.
Step 2 - Identify the potential locally. On any simply connected sub-domain not containing the origin, the differential is $d\theta$, where $\theta = \arg(x+iy)$ is the polar angle. (Check: $\theta = \arctan(y/x)$ gives $d\theta = (-y\,dx + x\,dy)/(x^2+y^2)$.) So the integral measures the net change in polar angle from $A$ to $B$ along the path.
Step 3 - Compute the angle change for one path. $A = (1,0)$ has $\theta_A = 0$. $B = (2,2)$ has $\theta_B = \pi/4$. A direct path from $A$ to $B$ (say, the straight line) keeps $\theta$ in $[0, \pi/4]$, so its integral equals $\pi/4 - 0 = \pi/4$.
Step 4 - Account for paths that wind around the origin. Any other path from $A$ to $B$ differs from the direct one by some number of full loops around the origin. Each counterclockwise loop adds $2\pi$, each clockwise loop subtracts $2\pi$. So the set of all possible values is $$\left\{ \frac{\pi}{4} + 2\pi n : n \in \mathbb{Z} \right\}.$$ This is the textbook example of how Theorem IV's "simply connected" hypothesis is load-bearing - the integral is genuinely multi-valued on the punctured plane.